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 Post subject: Did 23:96 or 41:34 abrogate 42:42?
PostPosted: 25 Aug 2010, 14:42 
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Al-Khazraji reports in his book نفس الصباح في غريب القرآن وناسخه ومنسوخه, volume 2, pages 641-642, that Ibn Zayd said that

was abrogated by either

or

But that Makki said it wasn't.

Why is there cause for abrogation here? One verse says that when wronged, a believer has the legal right to sue. The other verse says to always fend off evil with good.

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 Post subject: Who said what
PostPosted: 25 Aug 2010, 14:43 
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For:
Ibn Zayd.

Against:
Makki.

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