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 Post subject: Did 42:40 abrogate itself?
PostPosted: 28 Feb 2010, 20:48 
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Ibn Al-Jawzi reports, with harsh criticism, that some claimed that

was abrogated by the latter part of it.

He writes,

ذكر الآية السابعة: قوله تعالى "وجزاء سيئة سيئة مثلها". زعم بعض من لا فهم له أن هذا الكلام منسوخ بقوله "فمن عفا وأصلح فأجره على الله". وليس هذا بقول من يفهم الناسخ والمنسوخ، لأن المعنى الآية أن من جازى مسيئا فليجازه بمثل إساءته، ومن عفا فهو أفضل


He correctly dismisses the claim saying that the verse simply means that the punishment of a bad deed must be equal to it, but forgiveness is better.

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 Post subject: Who said what
PostPosted: 08 Jun 2010, 15:27 
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For:
Abdur-Rahmaan ibn Zayd (quoted by Dr. Zayd),
Ibn Salaama.

Against:
At-Tabari and Ibn Katheer (implied by their interpretations in their exegeses, quoted by Dr. Zayd),
Ibn Al-Jawzi,
Dr. Mustafa Zayd,
Dr. Az-Zalmi.

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 Post subject: Re: Did 42:40 abrogate itself?
PostPosted: 08 Jun 2010, 15:38 
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In refuting this case, Dr. Az-Zalmi in his book التبيان لرفع غموض النسخ في القرآن, pages 374-375, points out that God has called the punishment for سيئة (a displeasing act), the same name as a literary device, in this case it's called in Arabic مشاكلة /muʃæ:,kælæ/.

This is a legitimate argument. However, I do not see the need for it. The word سيئة means a displeasing act. Thus, the first mention in the verse is an act by the worshiper that displeases God. The latter mention, the punishment, is an act by God that displeases the worshiper.

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