Al-Khazraji, in his book نفس الصباح في غريب القرآن وناسخه ومنسوخه, volume 1, pages 215-216, reports that Ismail ibn Aws has stated that 2:191 is actually an abrogating verse. He said it abrogated
How can that be, when verse 4:91 says that the fight is only called for, regardless of place, when the enemy does not observe the terms of peace, which is exactly what the 2:191 says?
Qataada said 2:191 was abrogated by
the sword verse. Others have said it was abrogated by 9:36,
which some scholars have meant when they referred to the sword verse.
Once again, it is obvious that the pro-abrogation folk were unable to see how each verse addresses a specific point and that all of them together make up the ruling. This is emblematic of most abrogation claims.
Verse 2:191 establishes the sanctity of the Sacrosanct Mosque. It does not prohibit fighting in it unconditionally! It clearly says that fighting in it should be avoided but may be done only if Muslims are fought there. Then, it's self defense and not defiling of the place.
Verse 2:193 establishes the legitimate reason for fighting: ensuring that people will be free to choose Islam for a religion and that Muslims will not be persecuted. It does not mention anything about the Sacrosanct Mosque.
Verse 9:36 simply tells Muslims to unite against the enemy which is united against them. It does not mention the Sacrosanct Mosque.
Verse 9:5, the "sword" verse, as mentioned a million times already, does not give a Carte Blanche license to fight or kill. Only hostile polytheists. If they fight Muslims at the Sacrosanct Mosque then Muslims are ordered to fight and kill them even there.
Where is the inconsistency or contradiction in any of the above that requires a strange and serious claim such as abrogation? Was the above analysis really that hard to come by?