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 Post subject: Did 9:29 abrogate 9:5?
PostPosted: 11 Jan 2010, 18:03 
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Ibn Al-Arabi, who stated that 9:5 abrogated 124 verses, also said that it was itself abrogated by 9:29! Here are the two verses,


is claimed to have been abrogated by


To begin with, the people covered in 9:29 are different from the people covered in 9:5 and therefore there can be no abrogation. The people covered in 9:5 are the polytheist while the people covered in 9:29 are the Jews and the Christians which God has repeatedly distinguished from the polytheist.

But if we were to accept that the "people who were given the Book" are considered polytheist, then this is an example of one verse explaining the other, not abrogating it. 9:29 defines the limits of 9:5, i.e., it states that the fight must end when non-Muslim citizens agree to be pay defense tax. Not only is this fair since Muslim citizens pay the alms tax, but it is also reasonable since non-Muslims are not required to enlist in the army while Muslims are.

One interesting additional note that should not be overlooked about 9:29 is that it specifies a combination of criteria for whom to fight. Taken together, Jews and Christians do not fit those criteria, IMHO, because they believe in God. In addition, Christians are particularly excluded from this verse, because they also believe in the Final Day.

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 Post subject: Re: Did 9:29 abrogate 9:5?
PostPosted: 12 Jan 2010, 06:13 
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Linguistic wrote:
Ibn Al-Arabi, who stated that 9:5 abrogated 124 verses, also said that it was itself abrogated by 9:29

So if 9:5 was abrogated, does this make it unable to abrogate other verses since it has been invalidated?

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 Post subject: Re: Did 9:29 abrogate 9:5?
PostPosted: 22 Jan 2010, 17:49 
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For:
Ibn Al-`Arabi,
Makki (implied),
Shayzhala.

Against:
Al-Khazraji.

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 Post subject: Re: Did 9:29 abrogate 9:5?
PostPosted: 18 Aug 2010, 04:06 
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Pragmatic wrote:
Linguistic wrote:
Ibn Al-Arabi, who stated that 9:5 abrogated 124 verses, also said that it was itself abrogated by 9:29

So if 9:5 was abrogated, does this make it unable to abrogate other verses since it has been invalidated?

If 9:5 is abrogated by 9:29, then how do they rule about polytheist citizens under Muslim rule, who are the only category of people spoken about in 9:5? Are Muslims supposed to let them be and not even collect Jizya from them? Or are they included in the protected people (أهل الذمة)? I don't know if any Muslim ruler in history has collected Jizya from Hindu, Buddhist or pagan citizens.

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