Actually, I seem to be thinking of a non-existing verse that has the sentence "فاحكم بينهم بما يدينون". I may be confused with a reference other than the Quran. Good thing I was not among the first Muslims, or this could have become an example of abrogation of recitation.
Al-Jabri, in his book لا نسخ في القرآن...لماذا؟, pages 115-117, as he refutes this case, talks about how Islam lead the world in recognizing that disputes between religious minority should be settled in their courts. That, he said, is a consequence of rejecting this abrogation claim. He said that only recently has the world recognized the need for this legislative principle. He says the first to do so was the Oxford Assembly in 1882, then The Hague Convention in 1904 and lastly in Montroe Treaty in 1931.
This is interesting discussion, since this legislative principle is being challenged in the US today, where bills have been introduced and approved by several states, prohibiting the use of foreign laws in American courts. Many analysts have commented that such bills are motivated by Islamophobia and are actually unconstitutional.