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 Post subject: Re: Interpretation of the Abrogation Verse 2:106
PostPosted: 09 Jul 2017, 19:02 
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Pragmatic wrote:
This is an argument against interpreting the object of abrogation in 2:106 as the Torah or the Injeel.
...
والآية لا تعني التوراة والانجيل، لأن الله تعالى يقول في وصف القرآن الكريم: "مُصَدِّقاً لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهَِ" (سورة آل عمران الآية 3) ويقول عن التوراة:"وكيف يحكمونك وعندهم التوراة فيها حكم الله، ثم يتولون من بعد ذلك، وما أولئك بالمؤمنين، إنا أنزلنا التوراة فيها هدى ونور، يحكم بها النبيون الذين أسلموا للذين هادوا والربانيون والأحبار..." (المائدة 43-44) ويقول عن
الانجيل:"وليحكم أهل الانجيل بما أنزل الله فيه، ومن لم يحكم بما أنزل الله فأولئك هم الفاسقون". (المائدة 47) ويخاطب أهل الكتاب: "قل يا أهل الكتاب لستم على شئ حتى تقيموا التوراة والانجيل وما أنزل اليكم من ربكم...". (المائدة 68).[/right]

All of the above refer to the original Torah and Gospel, which do not exist, since the Israelites have edited them. If the originals were not edited, there would've been no need for the Quran. The Quran was revealed in order to correct the manipulations the Israelites did to their holy books. This can be clearly seen in verses like,

and

Thus, the Quran, being a confirmation of what was reveled before it, as quoted in 3:3 above, does not mean that it confirms all of it and therefore cannot be said to abrogate it, as the writer seems to be arguing. The Quran abrogated the editions made by the Israelites and upholds the original teachings.

For the same reason, the commands referred to in 5:43, 5:47 and 5:68 above are rhetorical. They are challenges from God to the people of the Torah and Gospel to produce the original scriptures, free of manual edits. This is the significance of the ending "وما أنزل إليكم من ربكم" (and what has been sent down to you from your Lord), i.e., the divine content, not the man-made one!

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 Post subject: Re: Interpretation of the Abrogation Verse 2:106
PostPosted: 17 Jul 2017, 20:46 
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Linguistic wrote:
All of the above refer to the original Torah and Gospel, which do not exist, since the Israelites have edited them. If the originals were not edited, there would've been no need for the Quran. The Quran was revealed in order to correct the manipulations the Israelites did to their holy books. This can be clearly seen in verses like,

...
the commands referred to in 5:43, 5:47 and 5:68 above are rhetorical. They are challenges from God to the people of the Torah and Gospel to produce the original scriptures, free of manual edits. This is the significance of the ending "وما أنزل إليكم من ربكم" (and what has been sent down to you from your Lord), i.e., the divine content, not the man-made one!

Excellent!

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 Post subject: Re: Interpretation of the Abrogation Verse 2:106
PostPosted: 25 Jul 2017, 03:18 
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Another verse that has an anti-abrogation angle:


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 Post subject: Re: Interpretation of the Abrogation Verse 2:106
PostPosted: 28 Jul 2017, 00:21 
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In his book, النسخ بين الإثبات والنفي, Farghali defends the interpretation of آية in 2:106 as a verse of the Quran by citing the circumstances of its revelation, as mentioned by Ar-Raazi and Al-Aloosi. They said that the circumstances of revelation of this verse were that the Jews (or the polytheists - they weren't sure) accused the Prophet (PBUH) of changing his mind often and quickly! They said he orders his fellows one thing then forbids it and says something today which he retracts the next day. They argued that he makes up the Quran and it contradicts itself. That was also the charge of orientalists.

Farghali acknowledges that the grammar of the verse clearly shows it's a conditional statement. That abrogation may occur. But then says that the circumstances of its revelation make it clear that the probability became a fact. He also said, on page 56, that the generality of the verse makes it reasonable to conclude that the word means any sign of God, but that the circumstances of revelation makes it clear it can only mean a verse of the Quran.

I looked up this narration in the go-to book on circumstances of revelation, أسباب نزول القرآن للواحدي. It is not attributed to the Prophet PBUH or to his fellows. It is mentioned, without a narration chain, by exegesis books! It was mentioned most often in conjunction with 16:101, rather than 2:106. The editor of the book, Kamaal Basyooni Zaghlool, confirms that the narration is without a narrator chain.

Farghali based his entire defense, on pages 53-56, on a narration no one knows who said it.

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 Post subject: Re: Interpretation of the Abrogation Verse 2:106
PostPosted: 03 Aug 2017, 06:27 
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Linguistic wrote:
I looked up this narration in the go-to book on circumstances of revelation, أسباب نزول القرآن للواحدي. It is not attributed to the Prophet PBUH or to his fellows. It is mentioned, without a narration chain, by exegesis books! It was mentioned most often in conjunction with 16:101, rather than 2:106. The editor of the book, Kamaal Basyooni Zaghlool, confirms that the narration is without a narrator chain.

Farghali based his entire defense, on pages 53-56, on a narration no one knows who said it.

Bravo!

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